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Date: Thu, 15 Dec 2005 18:38:54 +0100
In-reply-to: <43A1A7AF.5000601@colder.ch>
To: "colder.ch" <webmaster@colder.ch>
Cc: php-dev <internals@lists.php.net>, php-general@lists.php.net
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	<43A1A7AF.5000601@colder.ch>
Subject: Re: [PHP-DEV] why is '01' == '1.'?
From: tularis@php.net ("M. Sokolewicz")

actually, you're right in that (colder.ch) since what happens here is a 
conversion. This applies to all these 'logic cases' posted. When 
something is converted to something else, as part of a process, you 
can't state that the process returns unique results (meaning the result 
always points back to the same input), and as such you can't state a lot 
of various things posted in this thread.

But this is all OT, and really should be moved off the list, or at least 
to the generals list.

- tul
colder.ch wrote:
> No, this rule of logic can't be applied : 2 == true and true == 10, but
> 2 != 10
> 
> It all depends on the types of the compared values.
> 
> 
> Hans Melis wrote:
> 
> 
>>a == b and a == c implies by the rules of logic that b == c
>> 
>>